In reply to lochias.

Agree with the assertion is that this is not as simple as either present.

Also, the maximum market share of the payments transactions that Apple could garner is NOT equal to their share of the smartphone market. The only way that would be true would be if the smartphone market share was directly related to the transaction volume of the users of those smartphones (meaning the 42% of the population that own Apple iPhones also represent 42% of the transaction volume).